Exam Results 2023

DPE Bangladesh Question Structure and Number Distribution for General Student | DPE Bangladesh Question Papers | DPE Bangladesh Question Paper Pattern

Question Structure and Number Distribution for General Student Download Papers

Question Structure and Number Distribution for Ebtadayee Student Download Paper

IGNOU CIC-1, CIC-2, CIC-4 and CIC-5 Question Paper Pattern | IGNOU Revised Question Paper Pattern December 2011 | IGNOU December 2011 Term End Exam Question Paper Pattern

QUESTION PAPER PATTERN FOR CIC-1, CIC-2, CIC-4 and CIC-5 FROM DECEMBER, 2011 TERM END EXAMINATIONS

From December 2011 Term End Examinations onwards, the patterns of CIC-1, CIC-2, CIC-4 and CIC-5 question papers will be changed.

The following is the pattern applicable for CIC-1, CIC-2, CIC-4 and CIC-5 question papers from December, 2011 term end examinations onwards:
Maximum Marks: 100
Time: 2 hours
There will be two sections, namely, Section-A and Section-B. All questions in Section-A are compulsory. From Section-B , any three questions need to be answered.
Section-A consists of (i) 10 multiple choice objective type questions, each question carrying 2 marks (ii) 2 questions, each carrying 10 marks
Section-B consists of a total of 4 questions. Each question carries 20 marks. You need to answer any 3 questions from Section-B.

IGNOU Previous Papers

ICWAI Campus Placement 2011 | Institute of Cost and Works Accountants of India Campus Placement 2011 Schedule | ICWAI Campus Placement 2011 Selected List

Campus Placement dates of various companies
Schedule for Campus Placement

S. No.	Name of the Company	For the Post of	Date of Interview	Time	Place	Venue
1.	Lanco Infratech Ltd.	Deputy Managers	15 Sept. 2011	10:00 A.M.	Delhi	ICWAI Bhawan, 3 Institutional Area, Lodhi Road, Delhi- 110003	Shortlisted Candidates / Eligibility Criteria
2.	MMTC Ltd.	Deputy Managers	17 Sept. 2011	10:00 A.M.	Delhi	ICWAI Bhawan, 3 Institutional Area, Lodhi Road, Delhi- 110003	Shortlisted Candidates / Interview Letter
			20 Sept. 2010	10:00 A.M.	Hyderabad	ICWAI Bhawan, 1-2-56/44A, Street No. 5,Himayatnagar, Hyderabad-500029	Shortlisted Candidates / Interview Letter
3.	NMDC Ltd.	Executive Trainees	21-22 Sept. 2011	10:00 A. M.	Hyderabad	ICWAI Bhawan, 1-2-56/44A, Street No.5,Himayatnagar, Hyderabad-500029	Shortlisted Candidates / Eligibility Criteria
			23-24 Sept. 2011				Shortlisted Trainees / Eligibility Criteria
4.	National Housing Bank (NHB)		24 Sept. 2011	10:00 A.M.	Delhi	ICWAI Bhawan, 3 Institutional Area, Lodhi Road, Delhi- 110003	Eligibility Criteria
			27 Sept 2010	10:00 A.M.	Chennai	ICWAI Bhawan, 4, Montieth Lane, Egmore, Chennai-600008
5.	Coal India Ltd.	Management Trainee (Finance)	27 Sept. 2011	10:00 A.M.	Kolkata	EIRC of ICWAI, 84 Harish Mukherjee Road, Kolkata-700025	Eligibility Criteria
			29 Sept. 2011	10:00 A.M.	Delhi	ICWAI Bhawan, 3 Institutional Area, Lodhi Road, Delhi- 110003
6.	Gail India Ltd.	Executive Trainees	28 Sept. 2011		Delhi	ICWAI Bhawan, 3 Institutional Area, Lodhi Road, Delhi- 110003	Eligibility Criteria

IGNOU Question Papers | IGNOU Exam Previous Papers | IGNOU Question Papers June/ December 2011

IGNOU Previous Exam Papers

1.	School of Management
i.	Management Programme (Includes MS-1to11, MS-91-97)	June 2009	December 2009
ii.	Post Graduate Diploma in Human Resource Management (Includes MS-21 to 28)	June 2009	December 2009
ii.	Post Graduate Diploma in Financial Management (Includes MS-41 to 46, MS-422- 425)	June 2009	December 2009
iv.	Post Graduate Diploma in Operations Management (Includes MS-51 to 58)	June 2009	December 2009
v.	Post Graduate Diploma in Marketing Management (Includes MS-61to 66, MS-68, MS-611 to 612)	June 2009	December 2009
vi.	Post Graduate Diploma in International Business Operations/ Masters of Commerce (Includes IBO-01 to 06, MCO-1, MCO-3 to 7)	June 2009	December 2009
vii.	Post Graduate Diploma in Teaching and Research in Management (Includes PGDTRM-02 to 07)	June 2009	December 2009
viii.	Bachelor Degree in Commerce (Includes ECO-1 to 14)	June 2009	December 2009
ix.	Application Oriented Courses (Includes AED-1, AMK-1, AOM-1, ASP-1)	June 2009	December 2009
x.	Preparatory Course in Commerce (Includes PCO-01)	June 2009	December 2009
xi.	Commonwealth Executive MBA/MPAProgramme (Includes C-1 to 9, SC-1 to 4, R-1, E-1 to 2, E-5, E-7 to E-10, E-13)	June 2009	December 2009
xii.	Certificate-in Business Skill s/Bachelor’s DegreeProgramme (Includes BCOA-001)	June 2009	December 2009
xiii.	Diploma in Retailing (Includes BRL-001 to 004)	June 2009	December 2009
xiv.	Certificate in NGO Management (Includes BMS-001 to 003)	June 2009	December 2009
2.	School of Education
i.	Certificatein Guidance (Includes NES-101/ES-101 to 104)	June 2009	December 2009
ii.	Certificate in Primary Education (Includes CPE-1 to 4)	June 2009	December 2009
iii.	Certificate in Elementary Teacher Education (Includes MES-021to 023, MESE-011 to 014)	June 2009	December 2009
iv.	Diploma in Primary Education (Includes ES-201 to 204, ES- 211 to 213, ES-221 to 222)	June 2009	December 2009
v.	Bachelor of Education (Includes ES-331 to 335, ES-341 to 345, ES-361 to 364)	June 2009	December 2009
vi.	Post Graduate Diploma in Higher Education (Includes ES-301/ MES-101 to 104)	June 2009	December 2009
vii.	Post Graduate Diploma in School Leadership and Management (Includes MES-004 to 008)	June 2009	December 2009
viii.	Master of Education (Includes MES-011 to 016, MES-031-034, MES-041-044, MES-051-054, MES-111-115, MESE-057-059)	June 2009	December 2009
3.	School of Continuing Education
i.	Certificate Programme in Food and Nutrition (Includes CFN-1 to 3)	June 2009	December 2009
ii.	Certificate/Diploma Programme in Youth and Development Work (Includes CYP- I to VII)	June 2009	December 2009
iii.	Certificate in Nutrition & Child Care (Includes CNCC- 1 to 2 and ACC, ANC ERD-1)	June 2009	December 2009
iv.	Certificate Programme in Food safety (Includes BFN- 001 to 003)	June 2009	December 2009
v.	Diploma in Nutrition and Health Education (Includes DNHE-1 to 3)	June 2009	December 2009
vi.	Diploma in Early Childhood care and Education (Includes DECE- 1 to 3)	June 2009	December 2009
vii.	P.G. Diploma in Rural development (Includes RDD-1 to 4 and RDD- 6 to 7)	June 2009	December 2009
viii.	Master of Science-Dietetics (Includes MFN-001 to 010)	June 2009	December 2009
ix.	Master of Arts Rural Development (Includes MDR-101 to 103, MRD-004, MRDE-101 to 104 and MRDE-101/R)	June 2009	December 2009
.
4.	School of Health Science
i.	Certificate in Health Care Waste Management (Includes BHM-001 to 002)	June 2009	December 2009
ii.	Certificate in Competency Enhancement for ANM/ FHW (Includes BNS-001 to 004)	June 2009	December 2009
iii.	Certificate in Newborn and Infant Care (Includes BNS-015)	June 2009	December 2009
iv.	Certificate in Maternal and Child Health Care (Includes BNS-017 to 018)	June 2009	December 2009
v.	Diploma in Nursing Administration (Includes BNS-011 to 014)	June 2009	December 2009
vi.	Post Graduate Diploma in Hospital and Health Management (Includes PGDHHM- 1 to 3)	June 2009	December 2009
vii.	Post Graduate Diploma in Maternal & Child Health (Includes MME-101 to 103)	June 2009	December 2009
viii.	Post Graduate Diploma in Geriatric Medicine (Includes MME-004 to 005)	June 2009	December 2009
ix.	Post Graduate Diploma in Community Cardiology (Includes MCC-001/R to 004/R)	June 2009	December 2009
ix.	Post Graduate Diploma in Acupuncture (Includes PGDACP-01 to 03)	June 2009	December 2009
x.	Bachelor of Science -Nursing (Includes HS1T-1 to 2,HS1T-4,HS2T-1 to 3,HS3T- 1 to 4,BNS-101 to BNS-111	June 2009	December 2009
xi.	Bachelor of Science – Optometry AND Ophthalmic Techniques (Includes BOS-01,BOS-03 to BOS-05)	June 2009	December 2009
5.	Staff Training & Research in Distance Education
i.	Post Graduate Diploma in Distance Education (Includes ES-311 to 314, ES-318)	June 2009	December 2009
ii.	Master of Arts in Distance Education (Includes ES-315 to ES-317, ES-319)	June 2009	December 2009
6.	School of Engineering & Technology
i.	Certificate in craft and design (Pottery) (OET-001)	June 2009	December 2009
ii.	Certificate in Shoe Upper Cutting (Includes OET-011 to 012)	June 2009	December 2009
iii.	Certificate in Shoe Upper Stitching (Includes OET-021 to 022)	June 2009	December 2009
iv.	Certificate in Shoe Casting and Finishing (Includes OET-031 to 032)	June 2009	December 2009
v.	Certificate in Leather Goods Making (Includes OLG-001)	June 2009	December 2009
vi.	Certificate of Competency in Power Distribution (CCPD) (Includes OEE-001 to 002)	June 2009	December 2009
vii.	Advanced Certificate in Power Distribution Management (Includes BEE-001 to 003)	June 2009	December 2009
viii.	Diploma in Civil Engineering/ Diploma in Electrical & Mechanical Engineering (Includes BCE-024 to 025, BCE-031 to 034, BCE-036, BCE-041 to 046, BEE- 031, BEE-041 to 042, BET- 011 to 017, BET- 021- 024, BET-026, BET-036 to 038, BET-045)	June 2009	December 2009
ix.	Diploma in Civil Engineering/ Diploma in Electrical & Mechanical Engineering- G (Includes BCE-051 to 052, BCEE-052, BEE-031, BEE-041 to 042,BME- 032 to 034, BME-043 to 044)	June 2009	December 2009
x.	Diploma in Mechanical Engineering (Includes BME-050)	June 2009	December 2009
xi..	Post Graduate Diploma in Industrial Safety, Health and Environment Management (PGDISHEM) (Includes MIS-001 to 012)	June 2009	December 2009
xii.	Bachelor of Technology in Mechanical Engineering (Computer Integrated Manufacturing) (Includes BME-001 to 022)	June 2009	December 2009
xiii.	B.Tech. Civil (Construction Management)/ (Water Resources Engineering) (Includes ET-101A-B, ET-102, ET-105A-B, ET-201A-B, ET-202A-B,ET-204A-B,ET-301(A)/ET-534(B),ET-301-B,ET-501A-B,ET-302A-B,ET-505,ET-507A-B,ET-508A-B,ET-521A-D,ET522,ET-523A-C,ET-524A,ET534A,ET-524-B,ET-525, ET-531A-B, ET-532A-B ET-533A-B,ET-534-C, ET-535A-B,ET-536A-B,ET-537A-B,ET-540B,ET-581-A-C,ET-581F	June 2009	December 2009
xiv.	BSC (NAUTICAL SCIENCE) (Includes BNA-011 to 018, BNA-021 to 024, BNA-031, BNA-041, BNA-051)	June 2009	December 2009
xv.	B.Tech in Aerospace Engineering (BTAE) (Incudes BAS-001 to 003)	June 2009	December 2009
xvi.	Bachelor of Architecture (Includes BAR-004 to 005, BAR-014 to 015)	June 2009	December 2009
7.	School of Social Sciences
i.	Certificate Programme in Participatory Forest Management (Includes PFM-1 to 4)	June 2009	December 2009
ii.	Certificate inLabour in Development (Includes BLD-101 to 2/CLD-1 to 2)	June 2009	December 2009
iii.	Certificate in Women Empowerment and Development (Includes WED-1 to 3 and FWE-01)	June 2009	December 2009
iv.	Certificate Programme in Disaster Management (Includes CDM-1 to 2)	June 2009	December 2009
vi.	Certificate in ICT Applications in Libraries (Includes BLII-001 to 004)	June 2009	December 2009
vi.	Diploma in Women Empowerment and Development (Includes BWEE-004 to 005, BWEE-012)	June 2009	December 2009
vii.	Bachelor DegreeProgramme (Includes FHS, EPS-1 to 10, EPS- 11 to 12, EPS-15, EHI-1 to3, EHI-5 to 7, EEC-1 to 7, EEC-9 to 14, EEC-19, ES0 1/11 to 6/16, EPA-1 to 6, BPAE-102)	June 2009	December 2009
viii..	Bachelor of Library and Information Science (Includes BLS-1 to 7, BLS-3P Part –I &II, BLS-4P Part –I&2 )	June 2009	December 2009
ix..	Bachelor in PreparatoryProgramme (Includes PSS-01)	June 2009	December 2009
x..	Post Graduate Diploma in Library Automation and Networking (Includes MLI-001 to 007, MLIL-001 to 007)	June 2009	December 2009
xi.	Post Graduate Diploma in Disaster Management (Includes MPA-001 to 007)	June 2009	December 2009
xii.	Post Graduate Diploma in Participatory Management of Displacement, Resettlement and Rehabilitation (Includes MRR-101 to 104, MRR-005 to 010)	June 2009	December 2009
xiii.	Master of Arts in Public Administration (Includes MPA- 011 to 018)	June 2009	December 2009
xiv.	Masters in Political Science (Includes MPS-001 to 004, MPSE-001 to 009)	June 2009	December 2009
xv.	Master of Arts in Economics (Includes MEC-001 to 009, MECE-001, MECE-003 to 004)	June 2009	December 2009
xvi.	Master of Arts in Sociology (Includes MSO-001 to 004, MSOE-001 to 004)	June 2009	December 2009
xvii.	Master of Arts in Public Policy (Includes MPP-001 to 008)	June 2009	December 2009
xviii.	Master of Arts in History (Includes MHI-01 to 08)	June 2009	December 2009
xix.	Master of Library and Information Science (Includes MLIS-1 to 6, MLIS-E1 to E6, MLI-101 to 102, MLII- 101 to 104, MLIE- 101 to 106)	June 2009	December 2009
8.	School of Humanities
i.	Certificate in Teaching of English (Includes CTE-1 to 5)	June 2009	December 2009
ii.	Certificate in Functional English (Includes BEG-004 to 006)	June 2009	December 2009
iii.	Diploma in Creative Writing in English (Includes DCE-1 to 5)	June 2009	December 2009
iv..	Diploma in Creative Writing in Hindi (Includes DCH-1 to 6)	June 2009	December 2009
v.	Bachelor DegreeProgramme (Includes FEG-1 to 2, BHDF-101/FHD-1 to 2, FTM, FTG, FKD, FML, FAS, FBG, FOR, FGT, FMT, FPB, FUD, BSKF-001, EHD-1 to 8, EEG-1 to 8, AWR-1, AFW-1, ATR)	June 2009	December 2009
vi..	Post Graduate Certificate in Copy Editing and Proof Reading (Includes MBPI-001 to 004)	June 2009	December 2009
vii.	Masters in Hindi (Includes MHD-1 to 7, MHD-13 to 16)	June 2009	December 2009
viii..	Masters in English (Includes MEG-1 to 9, MEG-11)	June 2009	December 2009
9.	School of Sciences
i.	Certificate Programme in Laboratory Techniques (Includes LT-1 to 4, PMT-01)	June 2009	December 2009
ii.	Certificate Programme in Teaching of Primary School Mathematics (Includes LMT-01)	June 2009	December 2009
iii.	Bachelor DegreeProgramme (Includes FST, AHE, AMT, AST-01, AOR, ACE-01, APM-01)	June 2009	December 2009
iv.	Bachelor PreparatoryProgramme (Includes OMT1)	June 2009	December 2009
v.	Bachelor DegreeProgramme (Elective Course: Chemistry) (Includes CHE-1 to 2, CHE-4 to 6, CHE-9 to 10)	June 2009	December 2009
vi.	Bachelor DegreeProgramme (Elective Course: Life Science) (Includes LSE-1 to 3, LSE-5 to 6 (Part-I,II), LSE-7, LSE-9 to 10, LSE-12 to 13)	June 2009	December 2009
vii.	Bachelor DegreeProgramme (Includes PHE-1 to 2, PHE- 4 to 7, PHE-9 to 11, PHE-13 to 16)	June 2009	December 2009
viii.	Bachelor DegreeProgramme (Elective Course: Mathematics) (Includes MTE-1 to 14)	June 2009	December 2009
ix.	Post Graduate Diploma in Environment and Sustainable Development (Includes MED-001 to 002, MED- 004 to 009)	June 2009	December 2009
x.	Master’s in Mathematics with Applications in Computer Science (Includes MMT- 001 to 002,MMT- 004 to 009, MMTE-001 to 007 )	June 2009	December 2009
10.	School of Computer and Information Sciences
i.	Certificate in Computing (Includes CIC-1 to 2, CIC-4 to 5)	June 2009	December 2009
ii	Certificate in Information Technology (CIT) (Includes CIT-001 to 003, CITL-001 S1- S4)	June 2009	December 2009
iii.	Bachelor in Computer Applications (Includes BCS-061, CS-60, CS-62 to 64, CS-66, CS-68 to 75, CS-601, CS-610 to 612, CC-9, CC-11, CC-16, CS-62P to 63P, CS-65P, CS-67P toCS-69P, CS-72P,CS-74P, Cs-611P )	June 2009	December 2009
iv.	Bachelors in Information Technology (Includes CSI-01 to 04, CSI-08 to 09, CSI- 13 to 16, CSI- 20 to 24, CSI-27, CSI-32, CSI-99, CSM-01, CSM-03 to 05, CSM-21, CSI-02P-S1/S2 to 03P-S1/S2, CSI-22P-S1/S2 to 24P-S1/S2, CSM-01P-S1/S2, CSM-03P-S1/S2)	June 2009	December 2009
v.	Advanced Diploma in Information Technology (Includes CST-101 to 104, CST-201 to 204, CST-301 to 304,CST-101P-S1/S2 to 104P-S1/S2, CST-201P-S1/S2,CST-203P-S1/S2,CST-301P-S1/S2)	June 2009	December 2009
vi.	Masters in Computer Applications (Includes CS-1 to 10, CS-12 to 16, CS-51, CS-54, MCS-011 to 015, MCS-021 to 024, MCS-031 to 035, MCS-041 to 043, MCS-051 to 053, MCSE-003 to 004, MCSE-011, CS-02P to 04P)	June 2009	December 2009
vii.	Masters in Computer Applications -Revised (Includes CS-01 to 10, CS-12 to 16, CS-51, CS-54, MCS-011 to 015, MCS-021 to 024, MCS-031 to 035, MCSL-016 to 017, MCSL-025, MCSL-036, MCSL-045, MCSL-054)	June 2009	December 2009
11.	School of Agriculture
i.	Certificate in Beekeeping (Includes OAPI-011 to 013)	June 2009	December 2009
ii.	Certificate in Organic Farming (Includes BAP-001, BAPI-001 to 003)	June 2009	December 2009
iii.	Certificate in Poultry Farming (includes OLP-001, OLPI-001 to 002)	June 2009	December 2009
iv.	Certificate in Water Harvesting and Management (Includes ONR-001 to 003)	June 2009	December 2009
v.	Certificate in Sericulture (Includes BLP-001, BLP-004, BLPI-002 to 003)	June 2009	December 2009
vi.	DiplomaProgramme in Value Added Products from Fruits and Vegetables(Includes BPVI-001 to 008)	June 2009	December 2009
vii.	Diploma in Dairy Technology (Includes BPVI-011 to 018)	June 2009	December 2009
viii.	Diploma in Meat Technology (Includes BPVI-021 to 028)	June 2009	December 2009
ix.	Diploma in Value Added Products from Cereals, Pulses and Oilseeds(DPVCPO) (Includes BPVI-031 to 038)	June 2009	December 2009
x	Post Graduate Certificate in Agricultural Policy (Includes MNR-001 to 002, MNRE-001 to 002)	June 2009	December 2009
xi	Post Graduate Diploma in Food Safety and Quality Management (includes MVP-001 to 004, MVPI-001)	June 2009	December 2009
xii.	Post Graduate Diploma in Plantation Management (Includes MAM-001 to MAM-004)	June 2009	December 2009
12.	School of Gender Development Studies
i.	Certificate Programme in Empowering Women Through Self-Help Groups (Includes CWDL-1 to 4)	June 2009	December 2009
ii.	Diploma in Women’s Empowerment and Development (Includes BWEE- 002, BWEE 006 to 008)	June 2009	December 2009
iii.	M.A. Gender and Development (Includes MGS-001(S) – 003)	June 2009	December 2009
13.	School of Social Work
i.	Certificte/Diploma in HIV and Family Education (Includes AFE -1 to 6/ BFE-101 to102, BFEE-101 to 104, AFE- 01 to 06 )	June 2009	December 2009
ii.	Bachelor in social work (Includes BSWE-001 to 006)	June 2009	December 2009
iii.	Master in social work (Includes MSW-001 to MSW-009, MSWE-001)	June 2009	December 2009
14.	School of Journalism and New Media Studies
i.	Certificate in Community Radio (includes BJM-001 to 002)	June 2009	December 2009
ii..	Post Graduate Diploma in Journalism and Mass Communication (Includes JMC-1 to 4)	June 2009	December 2009
iii..	Post Graduate Diploma in RadioPrasaran (Includes MRP-001 to 003)	June 2009	December 2009
vi.	Post Graduate Diploma in AudioProgramme Production (Includes MJM-001 to 003)	June 2009	December 2009
vii.	Bachelor of Arts in 3d Animation & Visual Effects (F2F)(Includes BNMI-001(S) to 003)	June 2009	December 2009
viii.	M.A. (Electronic Media Production and Management) (Includes EMPM-F2F-101(S) to105)	June 2009	December 2009
ix.	M.A. In Journalism & Mass Communication (MJMC) (Includes MJF-101 (S) to 105)	June 2009	December 2009
15.	School of Tourism and Hospitality ServiceSectoral Management
i.	Tourism Studies CTS, DTS, BTS, BHM (Ex Diploma), MTM-II, MHA-II) (Includes TS-1 to 7)	June 2009	December 2009
iii.	Master’s in Tourism Management (Includes MTM-1 to 15)	June 2009	December 2009
16.	School of Law
i.	Certificate Programme in Human Rights (Includes CHR-1 to 3)	June 2009	December 2009
ii.	Certificate Programme in Consumer Protection (Includes ACS-1, CPI )	June 2009	December 2009
iii.	Post Graduate Certificate in Patent Practice (Includes MIR-021 to 023 )	June 2009	December 2009
iv.	Post Graduate Diploma in Intellectual Property Rights (Includes MIP-001 to 008)	June 2009	December 2009
v.	Post Graduate Certificate InCyberLaws (Includes MIR-011 to 014 )	June 2009	December 2009
vi.	Post Graduate Diploma in Legal Process Outsourcing (includes PGDLPO-01 to 02)	June 2009	December 2009
17.	School of Translation Studies and Training
i.	Post Graduate Diploma in Translation (includes PGDT-1 to 4)	June 2009	December 2009
ii.	Translation in the Indian Languages (includes MTT-001 to 005, MTT-010 to 013)	June 2009	December 2009
18.	School of Vocational Education and Training
i	Certificate in Security Management (Includes OSEI-001 -004, OSEI-011 to 014, OSEI-021 to 024)	June 2009	December 2009
ii	Certificate in Spoken English and Personality Development (Includes OSSI-001 – 006)	June 2009	December 2009
iii	Diploma In Business Process Outsourcing – F & AProgramme (Includes BPOI-001 -006)	June 2009	December 2009
iv	Diploma in Entrepreneurship and Skill Development (Includes BVE-001-002, BVEE-001, BVEE-002 -005)	June 2009	December 2009
v	Advance Certificate in Security Management (Includes BSEI-001-005)	June 2009	December 2009
vi	Professional Certificate in Spoken English and Personality Development (Includes BSSI-001-003)	June 2009	December 2009
vii	Professional Certificate in Spoken English and Personality Development (Includes BTOI-001-004, BTOI-009 – 016)	June 2009	December 2009
viii	Bachelor Degree FashionMerchan Design and Production/ Fashion Design (Includes BFD-001 to 007, BFD-009 to 012, BFD-014 to 015, BFD-018 to 019, BFDL-001 to 005, BFDL-008 to 011, BFDL-015 to 016)	June 2009	December 2009
ix	Post Graduate Certificate in Security Operations (Includes MSE-001 to 006)	June 2009	December 2009
x	Post Graduate Diploma in Pharmaceutical Sales Management (Includes MSE-001 to 006)	June 2009	December 2009
xi	M.Sc. Actuarial Science (Includes MVE-001 -006)	June 2009	December 2009
19.	School of Extension and Development Studies
i.	M.A. in Extension and Development Studies (MEDS-001 to 004)	June 2009	December 2009
20.	School of Interdisciplinary and Trans-disciplinary Studies
i.	M.A. (Labour And Development) (Includes MLD-001S to 004)	June 2009	December 2009
ii.	M.A. Social Anthropology (Face-to-Face)(Includes MASA-01,03, 04)	June 2009	December 2009
21.	School of Foreign Languages
i.	Certificate in German Language (Includes BGLI-001 to 003)	June 2009	December 2009
ii.	Certificate in Japanese Language (Include CJL-001 to 002)	June 2009	December 2009
	Entrance Test Papers
i.	Entrance Test forB.EdProgramme	June 2009
ii.	OPENDET Entrance Test for Engineering DiplomaProgrammes	June 2009	December 2009
iii.	OPENMAT Entrance Test for ManagementProgrammes	June 2009	December 2009
iv.	OPENNET Entrance Test for Diploma in Nautical Science leading to B.Sc. (Nautical Science)	June 2009	December 2009
v.	OPENDEN Entrance Test for DentalProgrammes	June 2009

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CBSE Class XII English Subject Sample Paper 2012 | CBSE Class XII Sample Papers | CBSE Class 12th Sample Paper

CBSE Class XIIFunctional English(SET-1) Sample Paper – 2012

M.M: 100m

Time: 3 hrs

General instructions:
1. The paper contains four sections; Sections A, B, C and D. All the sections are compulsory.
2. Read the questions carefully before answering.
3. Marks will be deducted for exceeding word limit and for illegible, untidy presentation.
4. There are six printed pages.

SECTION A: READING

Q.1. Read the passage given below and then answer the questions which follow:
Indians, it seems, are becoming more aware of the positive side to staying fit. What exactly is being fit all about: a good body or stamina? More than ten years ago, when Jane Fonda and her aerobics hit the world, the refrain was losing weight and having a Fonda figure – trim thighs, taut belly and shapely arms and hips.
Fitness then meant being slim. Today the word has taken on a wider connotation. A body with hard, firm muscles and no fat can be one of the signs of being fit, but it’s no longer just about looking good. Feeling good is equally important. “Do understand,” explains Dr. Prabha Sanghi of Pulse Impulse, a fitness and health centre, “that all overweight are not obese and vice-versa.” Obesity stems from other reasons than just eating too much. “In India eating is a matter of habit. If the family has been eating cereals four times a day or four bananas every morning, they will continue to do so without bothering to find out about the calories they’re taking in. When you visit someone and are offered food, your refusal may offend the host. So you eat. Over indulgent mothers think ghee-soaked paranthas is what their children need. People also eat when they’re stressed,” Then, when they become overweight, they resort to fat suction and weight loss through machines, fad diets, protein powders, etc.
However, says Dr. Anjali Mukherjee of Health Total, people are realizing the harmful effect of these techniques. They are now moving towards long-term and healthy ways of remaining fit. And these ways are increasingly becoming personalized.
“Holistic health plans, corrective dietary / nutritive patterns and moderation in everything is becoming the new age mind-set, which is the correct attitude to fitness,” she says. “The only healthy way to stay fit is to follow an individual-specific diet lifestyle and exercise pattern. Each individual is unique in terms of body constitution and assessed on different parameters. For instance, diabetes, which is commonly understood as hereditary, occur due to eating excessive sweets. An abusive lifestyle, drinking and stress prepones the incidence by 20 years.”
The past few years have thrown up a lot of new options – in both exercising and nutrition, both of which go hand in hand. If nutrition is inadequate, the body doesn’t reap the benefits of exercise. “You are what you eat,’ said Hippocrates. That explains it all, says Dr. Mukherjee. “Diet forms a basic pillar of support for correcting and preventing most medical problems.”

“The selection of food makes a lot of difference,” adds Dr.Mukherjee… “If you’re body-building, you need to have more protein and carbohydrates to get enough energy for workouts. You also need multivitamins to transport these nutrients properly. Different diets are needed to derive the full benefit of different sports.”
For instance, those into weight training should have a banana, whole-wheat bread sandwich, fruit and milk shake before going to the gym, as carbohydrates before exercising are used as fuel so that the muscle protein is conserved. Those into aerobics and swimming should eat a carbohydrate diet like bran bread / bran roti, banana, pasta and fruits. It’s just a question of forming the right food habits to complement the exercises you do. The options in exercise are many – walking, sport, the gym or even working out at home. Also, no single exercise takes care of all aspects of fitness equally. So having the option of more than one activity to turn to keeps exercise from becoming monotonous.
The once-trendy aerobics has given way to the well-equipped gym. People prefer the treadmill or the stepper and the younger lot like the weights for muscle building. Of course there is a whole set of people who swear by their daily walks. “The fresh air and the time one gets alone to introspect cannot happen while working on the treadmill or the stepper,” says Suresh Chaudhary, a corporate executive. “It is an addiction. Even when I am travelling, I refuse to miss my daily walk.” Yoga, too, is a big fitness movement as it takes care of physical, mental and spiritual fitness. “Yoga is a wholesome exercise,” says Bharat Thakur who’s been teaching it for several years now, both in-groups and individually. “It works on all aspects of fitness like strength, endurance, flexibility, coordination ability and agility. It reduces weight, tones the body, makes the skin glow, improves memory and concentration, rids joints pain, and keeps you fresh the whole day.”
Good hair, great skin, a toned body, high energy levels and a balanced mind all are indicators of a fit person. That, and the absence of any medical problems. For, at the end of the day, quality of life is what we are all looking for. And fitness is an inseparable part of the quality of life.
1.1 Based on your understanding of the passage answer the following questions:

9m

(a) How has the concept of fitness changed over the years?

1m

(b) How are overweight and obesity related?

1m

(c) What techniques do overweight people adopt to shed weight?

1m

(d) What alternative is preferable? Why?

1m

(e) How is the selection of food vital for fitness?

2m

(f) Why is Yoga preferred to other exercises?

2m

(g) Enumerate the indicators of a fit person?

1m

1.2 Find words from the passage which mean the same as each of the following:

(1×3=3)

(i) Often repeated comment. (para 1)
(ii) An idea suggested by a word in addition to its main meaning. (para 6)
(iii) Something that decides or limits the way in which something can be done (para 7)

Q. 2. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:

8m

Do children really need such long summer breaks, was a question posed by some experts recently. Apparently, such a long break disrupts their development and comes in the way of their learning process. Let’s get them back to their books, is perhaps the expert view, if not in so many words. One would have thought the children are doing too much during their vacations and not too little, given the plethora of classes, camps and workshops involving swimming, art, personality development, music, computers and the like that seem to cram their calendar. Even the trips taken in the name of holidays seem laden with exotic destinations and customized experience packed into a short period of time. We can do Europe in ten days and Australia in a week and come back armed with digital memories and overflowing suitcases. Holidays are in some ways, no longer a break but an intensified search for experience not normally encountered in everyday life.
It is a far cry from summer holidays one experienced while growing up. For holidays every year meant one thing and one thing alone—— you went back to your native place logged in with the emotional headquarters of your extended family and spent two months with a gaggle of uncles, aunts and first and second cousins. The happiest memories of the childhood of a whole generation seem to be centered around this annual ritual of homecoming and of affirmation. We tendered tacit apologies for the separateness entailed in being individuals even as we scurried back into the cauldron of community represented by family. Summer vacation was a time sticky with oneness, as who we were and what we owned oozed out from our individual selves into a collective pot.
Summer was not really a break, but a joint. It was the bridge used to reaffirm one’s connectedness with one’s connectedness with one’s larger community. One did not travel, one returned. It was not an attempt to experience the new and the extraordinary but one that emphatically underlined the power of the old and the ordinary. As times change, what we seek from our summer breaks too has changed in a fundamental way. Today, we are attached much more to work and summer helps us temporarily detach from this new source of identity. We refuel our individual selves now; and do so with much more material than we did in the past. But for those who grew up in different times, summer was the best time of their lives. (418 words)
Source: The Times of India
2.1 Make notes of the above passage using an acceptable format including abbreviations, with suitable titles.

5m

2.2 Make a summary of the above passage in not more than 80 words.

3m

SECTION B: ADVANCED WRITING SKILLS

3. Write a factual description of a healthy meal to be served at a youth hostel. You are a nutritionist working at a reputed Hospital. Do not use more than 80 words.

5m

OR

You are Geetu Singh, the Incharge of your school “Painting Club”. You have received an invitation from the nearby DAV School to participate in the activities of the Painting Club during the winter break. Write a reply declining the offer giving a valid reason. (Word limit 50-80)
4. Doaba Book House has brought out a comprehensive book on ‘Effective Creative Writing Skills in English.’ Write a letter to a well known and highly frequented bookshop in the capital offering 25% discount on the above book on the purchase of minimum 150 copies of the book. You are the Administrative Officer, British School, Delhi.

10m

OR

You are a resident of Saket Pocket C. The sweepers of MCD neither clean the streets nor pick up the garbage regularly. Write a letter of complaint to the Commissioner, MCD, bringing to his notice both the problem and the outcome of such callous attitude. Request him to take necessary steps.(Word limit- 125)

5. Treading a cautious path on the unauthorized places of worship springing up in public places——- including roads——- the Supreme Court ruled that while the existing structures may remain, the government must prevent such encroachment in the future. As the Cultural Club In charge of Pathways School, Hisar, prepare a speech for the morning assembly in about 125-150 words.

10m

OR

Superstitions, they say, are the manifest weakness of the human mind and were created mainly to spread fear. In the wake of the recent Solar Eclipse proved the truth of this when superstition came to dominate the lives of many. Write a speech on the superstitions, myth and irrationality which is prevalent in today’s time.

SECTION C: GRAMMAR

6. The following passage has not been edited and there is one error in each line. Write the incorrect word and the correction in your answer sheet against the correct number:

5m

ERROR CORRECTION Not in the mood to eg. The a
(a) wastes time the University reopens early. __________________________________________
(b) The Dyal Nand College, affiliate to The Delhi ________________________________________
(c) University is organize an orientation _______________________________________________
(d) program to the Freshers on Monday. ______________________________________________
(e) The session was being organized _________________________________________________
(f) two day before the new _________________________________________________________
(g) session kicking in. The college ___________________________________________________
(h) wants to organize the orientationing session ________________________________________
(i) because they want to start of _____________________________________________________
(j) regular classes in the very first day. ________________________________________________

7. Look at the words and phrases below. Rearrange them to form meaningful sentences.

5m

(a) put into/ as the/ at low/ baby can/ he is/ as soon/ water/ toddle/ tide/
(b) water/ the baby/ in the/ here/ plays/ site and/
(c) long enough/ the mother/ him/ does not/ to weary/ there/ leave him/
(d) older/ at low tide/ as/ wade about/ allowed to/ he is/ he grows/
(d) look out/ water/ keep a/ into deep/ sharp/ does not stray/ so that he/ his elders/

8. Rohit’s father has to go to Dehradun on an official tour by train. Since he is very busy he asked Rohit to get a ticket. As Rohit has never bought a ticket before, his father gives him instructions. Frame 5 sets of meaningful dialogue between Rohit and his father based on the above inputs.

5m

9. You come across your friend Sumit in the busy cloth market of Chandni Chowk, Delhi. You have met him after five years. During these years he has launched a travel and tourism company and is running it successfully. You have a number of questions to ask him. Frame ten questions you would like to ask him.

5m

SECTION D — LITERATURE

10. Read the following extract and answer any one of the following:

7m

“I know why the caged bird beats his wings
Till its blood is red on the cruel bars.”

(a) Name the poet.

2m

(b) Explain the line, ‘Till its blood is red on the cruel bars.’

1m

(c) What does the bird symbolize?

2m

(d) Identify the figure of speech in the second line.

1m

(e) Who does the bird appeal to for help?

OR

Dumb
As old medallions to the thumb,
Silent as the sleeve-worn stone
Of casement ledges where the moss has grown——
A poem should be wordless
As the flight of birds.

(a) Name the poet and the poet.

1m

(b) What do ‘dumb’ and ‘thumb signify?

2m

(c) What are the two words used in the extract which expresses the meaning of a poem without saying anything? 1m
(d) Which literary device is used in the poem? Give an example.

2m

(e) What are the qualities of a good poem according to the above lines?

1m

11. Answer any two of the following in about 40 – 50 words each:

(4×2=8)

(a) In the poem ‘Of Mothers, Among Other Things’, why does the Narrator say, ‘my cold parchment tongue licks bark’?
(b) How should a poem bring out grief and love, according to Archibald MacLeish?
(c) In the lines, ‘season of mists and mellow fruitfulness’, who is the poet describing? Who is its close friend? And why have they been described so?
way2freshers.com
12. Answer any one of the following in about 80 – 100 words:

5m

Who is the Master of the World
Who shall I condemn to death
(a) Name the play and the author.

1m

(b) Who speaks these words and to whom?

1m

(c) Who does ‘Master of the World’ refer to?

1m

(d) What is his dilemma?

1m

(e) Why does he call it ‘his last act of mercy’?

1m

OR

In the play Alexander has been portrayed as a man of action and at the same time as a man of emotion also. Elucidate.

13. Answer any two of the following in about 40-50 words each: (4×2=8)

a) What were the drawbacks in the plan that the two comedians had devised to meet the conditions of the challenge put forth by Suzanne?
(b) Explain: But do not take from any man his song.
(c) Why does the writer conclude that the bee was morally higher in the scale than the mosquito?
(d) In what context does Einstein say: Knowledge is dead; the school, however, serves the living? What does he imply by it?

14. Answer any one of the following in about 100-125 words:

7m

You are one of Lisa’s devoted admirers who have followed her career with great interest. You have witnessed the performance she gives after Doronin’s death. You are so moved that you write a letter to congratulate her on her brilliant performance and to express your sympathy at the news of the major’s death which you have learnt from the other actors. Write the letter within 100 – 125 words.

OR

The story, “A Room 10′ × 8′ ” is one full of ironical instances. Discuss them within 100 – 125 words
CBSE Class XII Sample and Previous Papers

CBSE Class X Mathematics Subject Sample Papers | CBSE Class Class 10th Sample Papers | CBSE Sample Papers

CBSE CLASS X MATHEMATICS SUBJECT SAMPLE PAPER

General Instructions:
1.All questions are compulsory.
2.The question paper consists of 30 questions divided into four sections – A, B, C and D. Section A contains 10 questions of 1 mark each, Section B is of 5 questions of 2 marks each, Section C is of 10 questions of 3 marks each and section D is of 5 questions of 6 marks each.
3.In question on construction, the drawing should be neat and exactly as per the given measurements.
4. In question on construction, the drawing should be neat and exactly as per the given measurements.
5.Use of calculator is not permitted.

SECTION – A

1. Is number 5 x 3 x 17 + 17 a prime number?
2. The sum and product of the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial are – ½ and – 3. What is the quadratic polynomial?
3. For what value of k for which the pair of linear equations 10x + 5y = ( k – 5 ) and 20x + 10y = k have infinitely many solutions.
4. If Tan A = ¾ and A+B = 90, then what is the value of Cot B?
5. In ABC, DE||BC, AD:DB = 1.5cm:3cm and AE=1 cm , find EC.
6. Find Emperical formula for finding the mode.
7. A sphere of radius 10.5 cm is melted and then recast into smaller cones of radius 3.5 cm and height 3 cm. find the number of cones.
8. From a point Q, the length of the tangent to a circle is 12 cm and the distance of Q from the centre of circle is 13cm. Find the diameter of the circle.
9. A bag contains 4 white, 3 red and 2 black balls. A ball is drawn at random from the bag. Find the probability that it is not a white ball.
10. Find the value of m so that m+2, 4m–6 and 3m– 2 are three consecutive terms of an A.P.

SECTION – B

11. Find the discriminant of the equation 3x¬2 – 2x + 1/3 = 0 and hence find the nature of its roots. Find them, if they are real.
12. In ABC,angle ACB = 90 and CD perpend. AB. Prove that CB2 : CA2 = BD : AD.
13. Find the ratio in which the line 2x + 3y – 30 = 0 divides the line segment joining the points ( 3, 4 ) and ( 7, 8). Find also the coordinates of the point of section.
14. A circle touches all the four sides of a quadrilateral ABCD. Prove that AB + CD = BC + DA.
15. If the zeroes of the polynomial x3 – 3×2 + x + 1 are a – b, a and a + b, find the value of a and b.

SECTION –C

16. Show that √3 is irrational.
17. Prove that : tan A + sec A – 1 = 1 + sin A
________________ _________
tan A – sec A + 1 cos A
18. A bag contains 50 balls bearing 1, 2, 3,………., 49, 50. A ball is drawn at random from the bag. Find the probability that the number on the ball is :
a. not divisible by 5 b. divisible by 7 or 11.
19. Solve the pair of equations: 44 + 30 = 0 and 55 + 40 = 13.
_______ _____ _____ ____
x + y x – y + y x – y
20. Find the area of the minor and major segment of a circle, given that the central angle is 600 and radius of the circle is 14 cm.
21. Which term of an A.P 3, 10, 17…………. will be 84 more than its 13th term?
22. Two circles of radii 2 cm and 3 cm with their centres 7 cm apart. Draw the tangents from the centre of each circle to the other circle.
23. Find the ratio in which the point P( m, 6 ) divides the join of A( – 4, 3 ) and B ( 2, 8 ). Also find the value of m.
24. A two digit number is such that product of its digits is 18, when 63 is subtracted from the number, the digits interchange their places. Find the number.
25. In ABC, right angle at B. AD and CF are the two medians drawn from A and C, if AC = 5 cm and AD = ( 3√5) / 2 cm, find the length of CE.

SECTION –D

26. In a flight of 600 km an aircraft was slowed down due to bad weather. Its average speed for the trip was reduced by 200 km/h and the time of flight increased by 30 minutes. Find the duration of the flight.
27. A container shaped like a right circular cylinder having diameter 12 cm and height 15 cm is full of ice cream. The ice cream is to be filled into cones of height 12 cm and diameter 6 cm, having a hemispherical shape on the top. Find the number of such cones which can be filled with ice cream, also find the silver paper required to cover each ice cream cone.
28. Prove that the ratio of the areas of two similar triangles is equal to the ratio of squares of their correspond sides.
Using the above, prove the following : the diagonal of a trapezium ABCD with AB||DC intersects each other at the point O. If AB = 2CD, find the ratio of the area of triangle AOB to the area of triangle COD
29. From a window h metres above the ground of a house in a street, the angle of elevation and depression of the top and the foot of another house on the opposite side of the street are A and B respectively. Show that the height of the opposite house is h(1 + tan A cot B ).
30. The median of the following data is 525. Find the values of x and y, if the total frequency is 100.

Class Interval	Frequency
0 – 100	2
100 – 200	5
200 – 300	X
300 – 400	12
400 – 500	17
500 – 600	20
600 – 700	Y
700 – 800	9
800 – 900	7
900 – 1000	4

Change the distribution to a more than type distribution and draw its ogive
CBSE Class X Sample and Previous Papers

IBM Placement Paper Held on August 2011 | IBM Latest Placement Paper 2011

IBM Placement Paper Held on August 2011
IBM Placement Paper Pattern
1.Data matrices
2.Number Series
3.Reasoning (Quantitative Aptitude)
Each paper is different no option of working as you like, the order is followed strictly and we can go for other paper only after one another. Each section has its own time limit.

Time duration for different sections is:
1.Data matrices ( 15min)
2.Number Series ( 4min )
3.Reasoning ( 15 min)
Initially we have to start with Data matrices when the invigilator says start. It contains 15 questions and we should answer them in 15min. No negative marking in this section. When time ends invigilator says stop. Each question has its own arrangement and does not depend on the previous one. Just take care of it and perform as fast as possible.
And again he says start then we should start Number series. It contains of 20 questions and should be answered in 4min. This section requires high accuracy and speed. This section too has no negative marking. Series from R S Agarwal is more than sufficient. If u can’t find the logic then skip to next one and don’t waste time on working out with one question.
Next when the invigilator says start we have to start Reasoning. It consists of 12 questions and not so easy and requires lot of calculation. So don’t keep hope on this section and do better in the above rounds. That’s hold your qualifying mark. Time for this section is 15min.

Bank Clerical Exam Sample Practice Paper | Bank Clerk Written Test Sample Questions

1. The sum of two consecutive numbers is 55, which is the largest number?
(a) 25
(b) 28
(c) 26
(d) 27
Answer : (b) 28

2. The radii of two spheres are in the ratio 2:3. What is the ratio of their surface areas?
(a) 4:9
(b) 2:3
(c) 8:27
(d) 4:6
Answer : (c) 8:27

3. What is the chance of getting a 2 or 4 in rolling a die?
(a) 2/3
(b) 1/6
(c) 1/3
(d) 1/2
Answer : (b) 1/6

4. What is the common ratio of the progression 3√2, 6, 6√2 ?
(a) 3
(b) 2
(c) √2
(d) √3
Answer : (c) √2

5. Five times an unknown number is 5 less than 50. The unknown number .
(a) 10
(b) 11
(c) 9
(d) 5
Answer : (c) 9

6. Water is filled in a cylindrical vessel in such a way that its volume doubles after every five minutes. If it takes 30 minutes for the vessel to be full, then the vessel will be one fourth full in .
(a) 20 minute
(b) 25 minutes
(c) 7 minutes 30 seconds
(d) 10 minutes
Answer : (a) 20 minutes

7. At what rate of simple interest per annum an amount will be doubled in 10 years?
(a) 10%
(b) 7.5%
(c) 16%
(d) 15%
Answer : (a) 10%

8. If 10 cats can kill 10 rats in 10 minutes how long will it take 100 cats to kill 100 rats .
(a) 1 minutes
(b) 10 minute
(c) 100 minutes
(d) 10000 minutes
Answer : (b) 10 minutes

9. The acute angle between the hour hand and minute hand of a clock at 4 PM.
(a) 900
(b) 1200
(c) 1500
(d) 2400

Answer : (b) 1200

10. When a shop keeper sold 2/3 of an item, he got the cost price of the whole lot. What is the percentage of his profit?
(a) 33 1/8 %
(b) 66 2/3 %
(c) 25 %
(d) 50 %
Answer : (d) 50%

11. If you add 100 to a certain number, the result will be more than, if you multiply that number by 1000 what is that number?
(a) 1.5
(b) 1.0
(c) 2.5
(d) 2.0
Answer : (b) 1.0

12. If 75 % of a number is added to 75, the result is the number itself, then the number is:
(a) 250
(b) 750
(c) 400
(d) 300
Answer : (d) 300

13. A student has to secure 40 % marks to pass. He gets 150 marks and fails by 30 marks. What is the maximum marks?
(a) 400
(b) 500
(c) 475
(d) 450
Answer : (d) 450

14. A school has enough food for 400 children for 12 days. How long will the food last if 80 more children join them?
(a) 6 days
(b) 7 days
(c) 10 days
(d) 8 days
Answer : (c) 10 days

15. The height of a cone and its base diameter are equal. If the base radius is ‘r’ what is its slant height?
(a) 3r
(b) 4r
(c) √5r
(d) √3r
Answer : (c) √5r

Velammal School Science Talent Search Exam Model Question Paper | Velammal School Science Talent Search Exam Question Papers

Velammal School Science Talent Search Exam Model Question Paper.

Click Here To Download Velammal School Science Talent Search Exam Model Question Paper

Syllabus
LEVEL ONE (Std. I and II)
MATHS

*Numbers from 1 to 500 *Number names 1 to 500 *Addition with carry over *Subtration *Multiplication(from 1 to 10) * Geometry(hapes) *Fractions *Money *Time

GENERAL SCIENCE
*Animal Life *Human body *Food Health and Sanitation *Plant life *Safety and First aid *Rock, Soil and Minerals *Energy and work All Water and Weather *Matter and Material *Our Universe *Enviromental Science

LEVEL TWO (STD. III and IV)
MATHS
*Numbers up to 6 digits & Roman numerals *Measurement of Time and Money *Fractions and Decimals *Geometry – Line, Line segment, Ray, Solid shaps, Angles and Plane figures *Metric Measures *Profit and Loss *Pictorial representation.

GENERAL SCIENCE
*Animal Life * Human body *Food Health and Sanitation *Plant life * Safety and First aid *Rock, Soil and Minerals *Energy and work All Water and Weather * Matter and Material *Our Universe *Enviromental Science.

LEVEL THREE (STD.V and VI)
MATHS
*Number system *Mensuration:Area and volume * Ratio and Proportion *Profit and Loss *Percentage *Geometry-Plane Figures, Solids, Circles, Angles, Parallel and Perpendicular lines * Algebra * Simple interest * Metric measures *Measurement of Time & Money *Average *Pictorial representation.

GENERAL SCIENCE
*Environmental Science *Measurement *Food, Health & Hygiene *Light * Animal Life *Energy and Work *Plant Life *Matter & Materials *Human body *Safty and First aid *Air, Water & Weather *Motion and Force *Simple Machines.

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TCS Online Placement Paper NIT DURGAPUR Held 2011

Tcs took an online test consisting of two sections

1) verbal + aptitude
2) psychometry

person clearing the cutoff in (1) will only be allowed to give psychometry. Verbal section was a little tough as all the words were new. I will advise u to go through the high frequency words of baron’s GRE book. I am unable to send the passages as nobody remembered them but they were similar to those given in baron’s GRE book. They have a huge database for verbal so be prepared for new words. Aptitude questions will be similar and psychometry will be same .

SECTION 1: VERBAL

I HAVE GIVEN BELOW THE WORDS THAT WERE ASKED IN SYNONYMS AND ANTONYMS.

Ponderous Heavy , Lumbering
Hamper Bond , Disadvantage , Handicap
Nebulous Cloudy
Mundane Routine ,Quotidian ,Unremarkable

Icon Image

Brackish Briny

Mollify Pacify, Appease , Conciliate

Deprecation Denigration , Dispraise

Equanimity Calmness

Transient Ephemeral , Fugacious , Momentary

Mite Soupcon ,Pinch

Gist Essence

Gaudy Tastelessly showy , Cheap , Meretricious

Contraband Black-marketed , Smuggled

Repellant Loathly , Rebarbative

Awry Amiss , Lopsided , Out of order , Wrong

Frugality Economy , thrift , parsimony

Repartee wit , humour

Boisterous fierce , robustious , rumbustious

Ungainly Lacking grace in movement or posture, awkward

Whimsical capricious , impulsive

Asperity Something hard to endure , rigorousness ,

Cavil Raise trivial objections , chicane

Quixotic unrealistic , romantic

Profound unfathomed , unplumbed , Of the

greatest intensity; complete

Incorrigible Impervious to correction by

punishment , delinquent , Persistent

Musty Stale and unclean smelling , frowsty , mouldy

Waif A homeless child , forsaken or orphaned

Irk Irritate or vex , gall

Interdict Prohibit

Cohere Hold together

Rupture break

Moribund dying

Décolleté low necked

Callow youthful

Repugnance Disgust , Revulsion , Abhorrence

Incompatible Faulty

Dispel scatter,

Divulge reveal,

To merit to deserve,

Discretion prudence,

Emancipate liberate,

Efface obliterate,

Hover linger,

Heap to pile,

Instigate incite, bring out

lattitude scope,

latent potential,

lethargy stupor

momentary transient,

pretentious ostentatious,

Embrace cuddle , squeeze

effigy dummy

Admonish caution

Meager scanty

Alienate estrange

Merry gay

Brim Border

Obstinate stubborn

pretension pretentioiusness

Tranquil serene

solicit urge

subside wane

Furtive stealthy

misery distress

volume quantity

Veer diverge

stifle snithy

adhesive cement

Hamper obstruct

belief conviction

lament wail

to merit to deserve

incentive encouragement

inert passive

Baffle Frustrate

Confiscate appropriate Covet crave

Caprice whim , impulse

Concur acquiesce

Cargo freight

glib

latitude scope

Baffle puzzle

Belate after time

Concur acquiesce

Disparity Inequality

Rapt immersed

Metamorphosis Transformation

Museruminate

Abode dwelling

Merit deserve

Adage proverb

lethargy stupor

acumen shrewdness

Scrutiny Close examination

to confiscate appropriate

penitence Compunction , Repentence , Regretion

Amiable friendly

circumspection CAUTIOUS

abysmal IMMEASURABLE

illustrious memorable

Parlance: glance,discussion,equality,*terminology.

Cajole: sympathise,disagree,*coax,insist

Liaison: potential,possible,*link,desirable.

Obliterate: *eradicate,inappropriate,illiterare,elaborate.

Exasperate: tire,narrate,provoke,*depress.

Ramification: collision,confusion,correction,*consequence.

Altercation: substitute,option,*controversy,change

Impasse: route,*deadlock,unlikely,insignificant.

recapitulate: *summerise,remind,captivate,jumble

Semblance: mixture,association,quietness,*appearance

antonyms

11.exonerate: testify,engender,*accuse,inundate

12.sagacity: *foolishness,secure,broad,illegal

13.commensurate: start,*disproportionate,end,economic

14. nonchalant : *anxious,courtious,honest,irrelevant

15.cryptic: hidden,essential,*explicit,smooth

16:rupture: break,*continue,enthusiasm,happiness.

17.revocable: alterable,awakened,*final,called upon.

18.slump: calm,*safe,prosperous,waste,

19.translucent: clear,*opaque,movement,efficient.

20.dangle : sound,ornament,small,*secure.

Antonyms :

Compose Disturb

Pristine sullied

Turbid limpid

Precipitate dilatory , contradictory

Revere threaten

Hamper facilitate

Slur commendation

Protean constant , consistent

Fascinate mundane

Fickle loyal

Synergy (The working

together of two

things to produce ?

an greater effect )

Hidebound broadminded

SECTION 2: QUANTITATIVE AND LOGICAL REASONING.

MOST OF THE QUESTIONS WERE FROM TCS OLD PAPERS. THE QUESTIONS WILL BE OF THIS PATTERN TO EVERYONE. ONLY THE DATA GET CHANGES.

1. In a two-dimensional array, X (9, 7), with each element occupying 4 bytes of memory, with the address of the first element X (1, 1) is 3000, find the address of X (8, 5). 3216

2.

3. In the word ORGANISATIONAL, if the first and second, third and forth,

4. forth and fifth, fifth and sixth words are interchanged up to the last letter,

what would be the tenth letter from right? i


5. What is the largest prime number that can be stored in an 8-bit memory? 251

6. Select the odd one out. a. Java b. Lisp c. Smalltalk d. Eiffel. lisp

7. Select the odd one out a. SMTP b. WAP c. SAP d. ARP

8. Select the odd one out a. Oracle b. Linux c. Ingress d. DB2

9.

10. Select the odd one out a. WAP b. HTTP c. BAAN d. ARP

11.Select the odd one out a. LINUX b. UNIX c. SOLARIS d. SQL SEVER

12.Select the odd one out a. SQL b. DB2 c. SYBASE d. HTTP

13.The size of a program is N. And the memory occupied by the program is given by M = square root of 100N. If the size of the program is increased by 1% then how much memory now occupied? Square root of 101N 14. A man, a woman, and a child can do a piece of work in 6 days. Man only can do it in 24 days. Woman can do it in 16 days and in how many days child can do the same work? 16

15. In which of the system, decimal number 384 is equal to 1234?

16. Find the value of the 678 to the base 7. 1656

17. Number of faces, vertices and edges of a cube 6 8 12

17. Complete the series 2, 7, 24, 77,_161

18. Find the value of @@+25-++@16, where @ denotes “square” and + denotes “square root”. 621

19. Find the result of the following expression if, M denotes modulus operation, R denotes round-off, T denotes truncation: M(373,5)+R(3.4)+T(7.7)+R(5.8) 19

20. If TAFJHH is coded as RBEKGI then RBDJK can be coded as RBDKK

21. G(0)=-1, G(1)=1, G(N)=G(N-1) – G(N-2), G(5)= ? -2

22. What is the max possible 3 digit prime number? 997

23. A power unit is there by the bank of the river of 750 meters width. A cable is made from power unit to power a plant opposite to that of the river and 1500mts away from the power unit. The cost of the cable below water is Rs. 15/- per meter and cost of cable on the bank is Rs.12/- per meter. Find the total of laying the cable.

24. In Madras, temperature at noon varies according to -t^2/2 + 8t + 3, where t is elapsed time. Find how much temperature more or less in 4pm to 9pm.

25. The size of the bucket is N kb. The bucket fills at the rate of 0.1 kb per millisecond. A programmer sends a program to receiver. There it waits for 10 milliseconds. And response will be back to programmer in 20 milliseconds. How much time the program takes to get a response back to the programmer, after it is sent?

26.If the vertex (5,7) is placed in the memory. First vertex (1,1) ‘s address is 1245 and then address of (5,7) is 1280

27. Which of the following are orthogonal pairs?


a. 3i+2j b. i+j c. 2i-3j d. -7i+j

28. If VXUPLVH is written as SURMISE, what is SHDVD?

29. If A, B and C are the mechanisms used separately to reduce the wastage of fuel by 30%, 20% and 10%. What will be the fuel economy if they were used combined. 60%

30. What is the power of 2? a. 2068 b.2048 c.2668 2048

31. Complete the series. 3, 8,15 , 24,35, 48, 63

32. Complete the series. 4, -5, 11, -14, 22, -27

33. A, B and C are 8 bit no’s. They are as follows:

A 1 1 0 1 1 0 1 1

B 0 1 1 1 1 0 1 0


C 0 1 1 0 1 1 0 1

Find ( (A-B) u C )= 01101101

34. A Flight takes off at 2 A.M from northeast direction and travels for 11 hours to reach the destination which is in north west direction. Given the latitude and longitude of source and destination. Find the local time of destination when the flight reaches there?

35. A can copy 50 papers in 10 hours while both A & B can copy 70 papers in 10 hours. Then for how many hours required for B to copy 26 papers? 13Hr

36. A is twice efficient than B. A and B can both work together to complete a work in 7 days. Then find in how many days A alone can complete the work?

37. A finish the work in 10 days. B is 60% efficient than A. So how days does B take to finish the work?

38. A finishes the work in 10 days & B in 8 days individually. If A works for only 6 days then how many days should B work to complete A’s work?


39.Given the length of the 3 sides of a triangle. Find the one that is impossible? (HINT : sum of smaller 2 sides is greater than the other one which is larger)

40.Find the singularity matrix from a given set of matrices?(Hint det(A)==0)

41.A 2D array is declared as A[9,7] and each element requires 2 byte. If A[ 1,1 ] is stored in 3000. Find the memory of A[8,5] ? 3108

42.Sum of slopes of 2 perpendicular st. lines is given. Find the pair of lines from the given set of options which satisfy the above condition? [Hint : y=mx+c and find the slope of the two Eqn. Compare the given answer with the value given]

43. (a) 2+3i (b)1+i (c) 3-2i (d) 1-7i .Find which of the above is orthogonal.

42.(Momentum*Velocity)/(Acceleration * distance ) find units. Kg MOMENTUM = MASS * VELOCITY

=> ( KG * D/S*D/S)/(D/S^2 * D)  KG

43. The number 362 in decimal system is given by (1362)x in the X system of numbers find the value of X a}5 b) 6 c) 7 d) 8 e) 9

46. Given $ means Tripling and % means change of sign then find the value of $%$6-%$%6


47. My flight takes of at 2am from a place at 18N 10E and landed 10 Hrs later at a place with coordinates 36N70W. What is the local time when my plane landed.

a) 6:00 am b) 6:40am c)7:40 d)7:00 e)8:00 (Hint : Every 1 deg longitude is equal to 4 minutes . If west to east add time else subtract time)

48. Find the highest prime number that can be stored in an 8bit computer. 251

49. Which of the following set of numbers has the highest Standard deviation?

1,0,1,0,1,0

-1,-1,-1,-1,-1,-1

1,1,1,1,1,1

1,1,0,-1,0,-1

50. Match the following:


1. Male – Boy —> a. A type of

2. Square – Polygon —> b. A part of

3. Roof – Building —> c. Not a type of

4. Mushroom – Vegetables —> d. A superset of
Ans: 1- d, 2- a, 3- b, 4- c

51. Match the following.

1. brother – sister —> a. Part of
2. Alsatian – dog —> b. Sibling
3. sentence – paragraph —> c. Type of
4. car – steering —> d. Not a type of
Ans. 1-b, 2-c, 3-a, 4-d

Remaining Questions were from Graph, pie charts, Bar chart and Venn diagram which were very easy.

SECTION 3: CRITICAL REASONING

I.The players G,H,J,K,L,M,N,O are to be felicitated of representing the county team in Baseball Out of these H,M,O also are in the Football team and K,N are there in the Basket ball team . These players are to be seated on a table and no two players who has represented the county in more than one game are to sit together.

1.Which one of the orders can they be seated in
2. Which of the orders is not possible
3. If N is seated in the middle then which of the following pairs cannot be seated near him .
4. If M is seated then which of the following pairs can be seated next to him.
Choices are given for all the questions II There are 2 groups named Brown and red. They can’t marry in the same group. If the husband or wife dies then the person will convert to their own group. If a person is married then the husband will have to change his group to his wife’s group. The child will own the mothers group. From these a set of 4 questions were given .Solve them

Eg;
1.Brown’s daughter is red (False)
2. If a person is red. Then his/her mother’s brother belong to which group if he is
married (Brown) III 7 people – a,b,c,d,e,f,g
Need to make a seating arrangement for them. Conditions: 1)A should be at the center 2) B,F should be at the right extreme
3)C,E always in pair 4)D,G as far as possible

Questions from the above were asked?
Eg: Which of the following pairs were not possible?
HR QUESTIONS:

For all the questions they expect a elaborate answer with justifications and not a short one.

1) Market urself
2) Why TCS ?
3) Will u switch over to any other company after joining TCS? If NO then why?
4) R u mobile? ( R u ready to go anywhere ?)
5) R u ready to go to places of extreme temperature. If yes what do u think of ur safety?
6) What are the requirements for leadership quality ?
7) Why u switch over to s/w from ur own back ground?
8) What are the qualities required for a s/w engineer and Project manager?
9) Rate ur good qualities?
10) What is the difference between hard and smart work?
11) Do u have a plan of doing higher studies ?

Technical Questions :
General :

The questions were different for different persons and depends on the field of interest that u say.

PSYCHOMETRY TEST
Direction:

In this section you will find different questions with the same meaning. In all such questions your answer has to be same. for e.g.:

In being thrown by chance with a stranger, you wait for the person to introduce himself or herself.
(a) Yes (b) No (c) CAN’T SAY

It is difficult for you to chat about things in general with people.
(a) Yes (b) No (c) CAN’T SAY

These two questions have similar meanings. If you answer the first one ‘NO’ and the second one ‘YES’, i.e. if you differ in your answers to similar questions you lose marks for every question with the above meaning. The choices to these questions are:
(a) Yes.
(b) No.
(c) CAN’T SAY

1. You start to work on a project with great deal of enthusiasm.
2. You would rather plan an activity than take part in it.
3. You have more than once taken lead in organizing project or a group of some kind.
4. You like to entertain guests.
5. Your interests change quickly from one thing to another.
6. When you eat a meal with others, you are usually one of the last to finish.
7. You believe in the idea that we should ” eat, drink and be merry, for tomorrow we die.”
8. When you find that something you have bought is defective, you hesitate to demand an exchange or a refund.
9. You find it easy to find new acquaintances.
10. You are sometimes bubbling over with energy and sometimes very sluggish.
11. You are happiest when you get involved in some projects that calls for rapid action.
12. Other people think of you as being very serious minded.
13. In being thrown by chance with a stranger, you wait for the person to introduce himself or herself.
14. You like to take part in many social activities.
15. You sometimes feel “just miserable” for no good reason at all.
16. You are often so much ” on the go” that sooner or later you may wear yourself out.
17. You like parties you attend to be lively.
18. If you hold an opinion that is radically different that expressed by a lecturer, you are likely to tell the person about it either during or after the lecture.
19. It is difficult for you to chat about things in general with people.
20. You give little thought to your failures after they are passed.
21. You often wonder where others get all the excess energy they seem to have.
22. You are inclined to stop to think things over before you act.
23. You avoid arguing over a price with a clerk or sales person.
24. You would dislike very much to work alone in some alone place.
25. You often find it difficult to go to sleep at night because you keep thinking of what happened during the day.
26. You find yourself hurrying to get to places even when there is plenty of time.
27. You like work that requires considerable attention to details.
28. You are satisfied to let some one else take the lead in group activities.
29. You enjoy getting acquainted with people.
30. It takes a lot to get you emotionally stirred up or excited.
31. You work more slowly and deliberately than most people of your sex and age.
32. You are a carefree individual.
33. When people do not play fair you hesitate to say anything about it to them.
34. It bothers you to have people watch you at your work.
35. You have usually been optimistic about your future.
36. You like to have plenty of time to stop and rest.
37. You take life very seriously.
38. You enjoy applying for a job in person.
39. You would like to be a host or hostess for parties at club.
40. You often feel uncomfortable or uneasy.
41. You are the kind of person who is “on the go” all the time.
42. You often crave excitement.
43. The thought of making a speech frightens you.
44. You find it easy to start conversation with strangers.
45. You often feel guilty without a very good reason for it.
46. People think you are a very energetic person.
47. You sometimes make quick decisions that you later wish you hadn’t made.
48. You find it difficult to ask people for money or other donations, even for a cause in which you are interested.
49. You are so naturally friendly that people immediately feel at ease with you.
50. You daydream a great deal.
51. You are quick in your actions.
52. You have a habit of starting things and then losing interest in them.
53. When you were a child many of your playmates naturally expected you to be the leader.
54. You sometimes avoid social contacts for fear of doing or saying the wrong thing.
55. You have frequent ups and downs in mood, sometimes with and sometimes without apparent cause.
56. You always seem to have plenty of vigour and vitality.
57. It is difficult for you to understand people who get very concerned about things.
58. When a clerk in a store waits on others who come after you, you call his or her attention to the fact.
59. You would be very unhappy if you were prevented from making numerous social contacts.
60. There are times when your future looks very dark.
61. You sometimes wish that people would slow down a bit and give you a chance to catch up.
62. Many of your friends think you take your work too seriously.
63. You hesitate to walk into a meeting when you know that everyone’s eye will be upon you.
64. You limit your friendships mostly to members of your own sex.
65. You almost always feel well and strong.
66. You seem to lack the drive necessary to get as much as other people do.
67. You make decisions on the spur of the moment.
68. You are rather good at bluffing when you find yourself in difficulty.
69. After being introduced to someone , you just cannot think of things to say to make good conversation.
70. You feel lonesome even when with other people.
71. You are able to work for unusually long hours without feeling tired.
72. You often act on the first thought that comes into your head.
73. At the scene of an accident, you take an active part in helping out.
74. You have difficulty in making new friends.
75. Your mood often changes from happiness to sadness or vice versa without knowing why.
76. You talk more slowly than most people.
77. You like to play practical jokes upon others.
78. You take the lead in putting life into a dull party.
79. You would like to belong to as many clubs and social organizations as possible.
80. There are times when your mind seems to work very slowly and other times when it works very rapidly.
81. You like to do things slowly and deliberately.
82. You are a happy-go-lucky individual.
83. When you are served stale or inferior food in a restaurant, you say nothing about it.
84. You would rather apply for a job by writing a letter than by going through with a personal interview.
85. You are often in low spirits.
86. You are inclined to rush from one activity to another without pausing enough for rest.
87. You are so concerned about the future that you do not get as much fun out of the present as you might.
88. When you are attracted to a person whom you have not met earlier you make an active attempt to get acquainted even though it may be quite difficult.
89. You are inclined to limit your acquaintances to select few
90. you seldom give your past mistakes a second thought.
91. You are less energetic than many people you know.
92. You often stop to analyzed your thoughts and feelings.
93. You speak out in meetings to oppose those whom you feel sure are wrong.
94. You are so shy it bothers you.
95. You are sometimes bothered by having a useless thought come into your mind over and over.
96. You get things in hurry.
97. It is difficult for you to understand how some people can be so unconcerned about the future.
98. You lie to sell things (i.e. to act as a sales person)
99. You are often “Life of the Party”.
100. You find daydreaming very enjoyable.
101. At work or at play other people find it hard to keep up with the pace you set.
102. You can listen to a lecture without feeling restless.
103. You would rather work for a good boss than for yourself.
104. You can express yourself more easily in speech than in writing.
105. You keep in fairly uniform spirits.
106. You dislike to be hurried in your work.
107. You sometimes find yourself “crossing bridges before you come to them”.
108. You find it somewhat difficult to say “no” to a sales person who tries to sell you something you do not really want.
109. There are only a few friends with whom you can relax and have a good time.
110. You usually keep cheerful in spite of trouble.
111. People sometimes tell you to “slow down” or “take it easy”.
112. You are one of those who drink or smoke more than they know they should.
113. When you think you recognize people you see in a public place, you ask them whether you have met them before.
114. You prefer to work alone.
115. Disappointment affect you so little that you seldom think about them twice.
116. You are slow and deliberate in movements.
117. You like wild enthusiasm, sometimes to a point bordering on rowdyism at a football or baseball game.
118. You feel self conscious in the presence of important people.
119. People think of you as being a very social type of person.
120. You have often lost sleep over your worries.
121. You can turn out a large amount of work in a short time.
122. You keep at a task until it is done, even after nearly everyone else has given up.
123. You can think of a good excuse when you need one.
124. Other people say that it is difficult to get to know you well.
125. You daydreams are often about things that can never come true.
126. You often run upstairs taking two steps at a time.
127. You seldom let your responsibility interfere with your having a good time.
128. You like to take on important responsibilities such as organizing a new business.
129. You have hesitated to make or to accept “dates” because of shyness.
130. Your mood is very easily influenced by people around you.
131. Others are often amazed by the amount of work you turn out.
132. You generally feel as though you haven’t a care in the world.
133. You find it difficult to get rid of sales person whom you do not care to listen or give your time.
134. You are a listener rather than a talker in a social conversation.
135. You almost always feel that life is very much worth living.
136. It irritates you to have to wait at a crossing for a long freight train to pass.
137. You usually say what you feel like saying at the moment.
138. You like to speak in public.
139. You like to be with people.
140. You generally keep cool and think clearly in exciting situations.
141. Other people regard you as a lively individual.
142. When you get angry, if you let yourself go, you feel better.
143. You seek to avoid all trouble with other people.
144. People seem to enjoy being with you.
145. You sometimes feel listless and tired for no good reason.
146. It is hard to understand why many people are so slow and get so little done.
147. You are fond of betting on horse races and games, whether you can afford it or not.
148. If someone you know has been spreading untrue and bad stories about you, you see the person as soon as possible and have a talk about it.
149. Shyness keep you from being as popular as you should be.
150. You are generally free from worry about possible misfortunes.

PSYCHOMETRY GROUPING

I would advise u strictly to go through the whole set of groups and define urselves- the key to psychometric test is to define who u are and then start looking in to deeply the questions.

Few qualities are

LEADERSHIP QUALITIES
SOCIABLE NATURE
BALANCED PSYCHE people who are balanced- not wavery in their moods etc..
DAYDREAMERS
PATIENCE AND ATTRIBUTE OF TAKING RIGHT DECISIONS AFTER
CAREFUL ANALYSIS
EASYGOING AND CAREFREE NATURED PERSONALITIES
ENTHUSIASTIC PERSONALITIES
SLOW SLUGGISH DULL PERSONALITIES
SERIOUS PERSONALITIES
STRONG FULL OF ENERGY
DIFFIDANT

TCS Online Placement Paper NIT Durgapur Held July 2011 | TCS Changed Online Placement Paper | TCS Online Placement Paper Pattern

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Virtusa Placement Paper Held on May 2011

There are 3 stages in the placement process:
1)written exam
2)technical interview
3)HR Interview.

The Written Exam Consists of 5 sections:

1. verbal ability
2. Analytical and logical reasoning
3. Attention to detail
4. C and Data structures
5. Learning capability.

1.verbal ability: In this section, be thorough with the usage of articles(a, an , the). Eg:I met him_____year ago.
Ans:a

2. Know the difference between effect and affect.

3.Be good with prepositions(basic stuff)

There is also a comprehension passage but attempt this later. First complete the rest and at the last come back to this passage. There are 25 questions and you have to answer them in 20 minutes. So make sure you maintain a decent pace right from answering the first question. That’s the key.

4. She’s so shy that she won’t even_____you in the face
Options given are: see, watch, look, glimpse
Ans: look

5.I hope I_______reach home before it gets dark
Options given are: will, can, should, must
Ans:will

6.by the time the movie_______i was feeling sleepy
Options given are:completed,finished,over,ended
Ans: ended

7. Neither of the sisters________for the mother
Options: cares, care, looafter, watch
Ans: care

8.______among the stars is your favourite
Ans: who(not whom)

These are the few questions I remember. There was also this passage on The ban of soft drinks and stuff. Attempt this at the last even though it is easy. Be sure to score well in this section as it is indeed scoring.

2.Analytical and logical reasoning: This is comparatively one of the tough sections. The trick here is the first few questions might not strike you at the first instance. But don’t worry…just go to the questions which you know and then come back to the unanswered. This section contains 25 questions and the time is 30 minutes.
What to expect:

1)questions from blood relations, puzzles.
Questions are like…200 people drink coffee and 110 drink tea and 250 drink both. So how many people drink coffee only and tea only and stuff like that(do refer R S AGARWAL for all these topics)

2. there are 4 Mondays and 4 Fridays in the month of January. So on what day of the week would be the 24th?
Ans:Thursday

Questions from cubes like cutting a particular number of cubes and colouring them and questions on the faces uncoloured and stuff. Problem on probability(simple). Be good with venn diagrams also.
3.Attention to detail: This section contains 20 questions and 20 minutes. Easiest of all the sections but having said that you need to put your focus on them properly.

1. 44556677 44556678 44556677
Are all the above same?or 1 and 2 are same? Or 1 and 3 are same? Or neither are same?
Atleast 5 questions will follow the same pattern.

Then comes mathematical operations. Eg:+ stands for -,/ stands for *,- stands for /. Then perform the following operation:25+32-6*7/8

Atleast 5-6 questions follow the same pattern. But there is a twist here. There are 2 questions here which will make u slog around and work out all the options. So leave those 2 lengthy questions for your own good and work the rest. They expect you to work on those questions and leave the rest. So don’t do that. The rest all questions are easy, provided you haven’t made any silly mistakes out of over confidence. I do that on a regular basis.

4.C and Data structures: This is the lengthiest of all the sections and you need to be smart here. 40 questions in 40 minutes. There are few questions on c but many on data structures. First be good at basics of c (format specifiers, pointers, arrays, conditional operator, relational and logical operator)

Data structures:
1.which of the following is stable?
Options(selection sort, insertion sort, both of them, neither of them)
Be good at the applications of stacks and queues. There will be few theory bits, so try to score more on them. They will give many code snippets and u need to compute the output. Leave the lengthy programs as they are given to waste your time. The trick here is go for the theory and small programs bits.

5. Learning capability: Here they will give a passage for you to read for 15 minutes and then will snatch away the papers and will give you another paper which contains questions on the passage you have read. They won’t allow you to note points while reading the passage. So just read the passage, get the theme of it, remember the abbreviations used, and try to remember the entire passage.(not so tough and not even easy). You will have to answer 10 questions in 10 minutes.

On the whole: These are the 4 sections that are scoring . Coming to C and data structures, it is a very important section and try to answer atleast 55-60% of the questions correctly as there might be a sectional cutoff here. On the whole, there are 120 questions

The exam might be sapping for you to sit through 2 hours and 15 minutes