BHEL Engineer Trainees Written Test Pattern | BHEL ET Written Test Scheme and Syllabus | BHEL Engineer Trainees Written Test Syllabus
Wednesday, 31 August 2011
10:08
BHEL Engineer Trainees Written Test Pattern | BHEL ET Written Test Scheme and Syllabus | BHEL Engineer Trainees Written Test Syllabus
BHEL Engineer Trainees and Supervisor Trainees Written Test Pattern
About the Written Test
1. Written test will consists of 240 multiple choice objective type questions.Test is designed to assess the candidate’s Professional ( Technical) Knowledge of the chosen Engineering Discipline and Higher Aptitude covering area like Quantitative Aptitude, Reasoning Ability, Logical thinking, English usage, General Awareness etc.
2. Your performance in this written test will determine possibility of further considerations of your candidature.
3. There is a specific time limit for Written Test. Candidate will have to answer 240 questions in 2 hours and 30 minutes.
4. For each question, a choice of few alternative answers have been given, out of which only one alternative is correct. You have to choose the alternative, you think to be correct and indicate your choice on the OMR answer sheet.
5. Your admission to this Test is, however, provisional. The candidates are advised to ensure while applying that they fulfill the eligibility criteria and other requirements and that the particulars furnished by them are correct in all respects for the post applied for. Mere appearance at the Test does not entail you to make any claim for the post. You will be treated as debarred ab-initio in case you do not fulfill the essential eligibility criteria.
6. The Answer Sheet is a special OMR (Optical Mark Reader) sheet.
7. Use BLACK or BLUE Ball point Pen ONLY.
8. Every question will carry 1 mark. Negative marking to the extent of 0.2 marks per wrong answer will be applicable.
9. a) For answering the Test questions, there will be CIRCLES in the Answer Sheet. The chosen answer is to be indicated by darkening (encoding) one of the CIRCLES fully. Any other method of answering will be taken as incorrect answer.
For Example, If 10x+6=106, then 15X -10 will be
. (1) 100 (2)140 (3)110 (4)80 (5) None of the above
Since correct answer is option (2), the CIRCLE 2 will have to be darkened (encoded) to fill the space completely like this:
SAMPLE TEST QUESTION
1. APTITUDE TEST
Directions: In the following question, pick the choice whose meaning is opposite to the word shown in capitals.
1. HOI POLLOI:
(1) Cannibalism (2) Tyranny (3) The past (4) Aristocracy (5) Capitalist
Directions: In the following question, the descriptive sentence is aptly described by just one word. Select the choice which give the meaning most appropriately:
2. One who talks in his sleep:
(1) Somniloquist (2) Somnivocalist (3) Somnambulist (4) Somnalesist (5) None of these
Directions: In each question below you will find three words. The first two words are related to each other in some way. The third word is also related in the same way to one of the four alternatives marked as: (1), (2), (3) and (4). Find it out.
Directions: In each question below you will find three words. The first two words are related to each other in some way. The third word is also related in the same way to one of the four alternatives marked as: (1), (2), (3) and (4). Find it out.
3. REMAIN : STAY LEAVE: ?
(1) Good-bye (2) Run (3) Farewell (4) Depart
4. POET : VERSE SCULPTOR : ?
(1) Artist (2) Chisel (3) Statue (4) Marble
Directions: In each question below you will find words, four of which are alike in some respect; they have something in common and belong to one category. Only one word is different from them; it does not belong to the category to which the other four belong. Which word is different from the rest?
5. (1) Foot ball (2) Cricket (3) Polo (4) Chess (5) Hockey
6. (1) Eye (2) Nose (3) Tongue (4) Finger (5) Liver
7. In a code where a numeral represents an alphabet the most likely code for the word RECESS is:
(1) 913155 (2) 723245 (3) 865277 (4) 233300 (5) 983499
8. If in a code a,b,c, means `try your best’, b,o,p,o means `try again & again’ x,y,a means `all the best’ – Then `your best again’ is represented by
(1) c a o (2) p o c (3) a c p (4) y c a (5) o c y
Directions: In the following question complete the given series
9. 48,24,72,36,108, . . . . . . . . . . .
(1) 110 (2)115 (3) 64 (4) 54 (5) 125
10. Of the following numbers which one is the greatest?
(1) (0.6 x 0.6)-12 (2) 0.004 x 100 (3) (-0.7)4 (4) 0.2 x 0.2
11. Which of the following numbers is least?
(1) (1/4)2 (2) 49 (3) 4-9 (4) 42
12. It costs Rs.4.25 for two adults and their child to attend the Circus. If the child’s ticket is half the price of adult’s ticket, what is the price of an adult’s ticket?
(1) Rs.0.75 (2)Rs. 1.70 (3) Rs.1.75 (4) Rs.1.44
13. If `a’ is less than 50 and ‘b’ is less than 25, it follows that:
(1) a=2b (2) `a` is greater than b (3) a+b is less than 75 (4) a-b =25 (5) None of these
b) Darken only in the CIRCLES provided. Please do not make any stray marks on the answer sheet. This will be penalised.
c) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet. This will be penalised. You can use the Test Booklet for this purpose.
d) Change / Cutting / Overwriting / Erasing of CIRCLES is NOT permitted.
2A. TECHNICAL TEST (for Engineer Trainees)
PART 1 – GENERAL
1. A series combination of Resistance and Capacitor is put across a Thyristor to protect it from:
(1) High Currents (2) High voltage (3) High rate of change of voltage (4) High rate of change of current
(5) Thermal run away
2. A Babbitt is:
(1) An eutectic of iron and iron phosphide
(2) A gadget of measuring volume
(3) Antimony bearing lead or tin alloy
(4) A measure of magnetic induction produced in a material
(5) None of these above
3. An Induction motor is:
(1) Self-starting with zero torque (2) Self-starting with very high torque
(3) Self-starting with smaller torque than the rated torque (4) None of the above
PART II – SPECIALISED FIELDS
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
1. The transformer capacity is 200 KVA, percentage impedance is 4% and tolerance impedance is 10%. The short circuit current in KA is:
(1) 0.39 (2) 8.21 (3) 8210 (4) 82100 (5) 0.821
2. A 20 KVA transformer was found to have 600 W Iron losses and 700 W Copper losses, when supplying full load at 0.8 power factor. The efficiency of the transformer on full load is:
(1) 92.5% (2) 91.2% (3) 100% (4) 98.2% (5) None of these
3. A water heater holds 20 litres of water. An electric immersion heater which will raise the temperature of the water from 10 degree C to 88 degree C in 55 minutes and efficiency of 85%. The rating in KW is
(1)7685000 (2)2330 (3)2.33 (4) 23.3 (5) None of these
ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING
1. A 10 Kw transistor is modulated to 80%. The average side band power will be:
(1) 1.8 KW (2) 8 KW (3) 3.2 KW (4) 4.6 KW (5) 4.26 KW
2. A resonant circuit has the resonance frequency 1 MHz and quality factor, Q, 100. Its 3-db band width is:
(1) 10 KHz (2) 5 KHz (3) 100 KHz (4) 20 KHz (5) None of these
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING
1. The inlet valve of a four stroke cycle I.C. engine remains open for nearly:
(1) 180o (2) 125o (3) 235o (4) 200o (5) 275o
2. Diesel cycle efficiency is maximum when the cut off is:
(1) Increased (2) Decreased (3) Maximum (4) Minimum (5) Zero
ANSWER KEY
1. APTITUDE TEST
1(4) 2. (1) 3.(4) 4.(3) 5.(4) 6.(5) 7.(1) 8. (1) 9.(4) 10.(1) 11.(3) 12.(2) 13.(3)
2A. TECHNICAL TEST – PART I – GENERAL
1(3) 2.(3) 3.(3)
PART II – SPECIALISED FIELDS
1. ELECTRICAL ENGG. 1. (2) 2. (1) 3.(3)
2. ELECTRONICS ENGG. 1. (3) 2. (1)
3. MECHANICAL ENGG. 1. (3) 2. (5)
BHEL Engineer Trainees and Supervisor Trainees Written Test Pattern
About the Written Test
1. Written test will consists of 240 multiple choice objective type questions.Test is designed to assess the candidate’s Professional ( Technical) Knowledge of the chosen Engineering Discipline and Higher Aptitude covering area like Quantitative Aptitude, Reasoning Ability, Logical thinking, English usage, General Awareness etc.
2. Your performance in this written test will determine possibility of further considerations of your candidature.
3. There is a specific time limit for Written Test. Candidate will have to answer 240 questions in 2 hours and 30 minutes.
4. For each question, a choice of few alternative answers have been given, out of which only one alternative is correct. You have to choose the alternative, you think to be correct and indicate your choice on the OMR answer sheet.
5. Your admission to this Test is, however, provisional. The candidates are advised to ensure while applying that they fulfill the eligibility criteria and other requirements and that the particulars furnished by them are correct in all respects for the post applied for. Mere appearance at the Test does not entail you to make any claim for the post. You will be treated as debarred ab-initio in case you do not fulfill the essential eligibility criteria.
6. The Answer Sheet is a special OMR (Optical Mark Reader) sheet.
7. Use BLACK or BLUE Ball point Pen ONLY.
8. Every question will carry 1 mark. Negative marking to the extent of 0.2 marks per wrong answer will be applicable.
9. a) For answering the Test questions, there will be CIRCLES in the Answer Sheet. The chosen answer is to be indicated by darkening (encoding) one of the CIRCLES fully. Any other method of answering will be taken as incorrect answer.
For Example, If 10x+6=106, then 15X -10 will be
. (1) 100 (2)140 (3)110 (4)80 (5) None of the above
Since correct answer is option (2), the CIRCLE 2 will have to be darkened (encoded) to fill the space completely like this:
SAMPLE TEST QUESTION
1. APTITUDE TEST
Directions: In the following question, pick the choice whose meaning is opposite to the word shown in capitals.
1. HOI POLLOI:
(1) Cannibalism (2) Tyranny (3) The past (4) Aristocracy (5) Capitalist
Directions: In the following question, the descriptive sentence is aptly described by just one word. Select the choice which give the meaning most appropriately:
2. One who talks in his sleep:
(1) Somniloquist (2) Somnivocalist (3) Somnambulist (4) Somnalesist (5) None of these
Directions: In each question below you will find three words. The first two words are related to each other in some way. The third word is also related in the same way to one of the four alternatives marked as: (1), (2), (3) and (4). Find it out.
Directions: In each question below you will find three words. The first two words are related to each other in some way. The third word is also related in the same way to one of the four alternatives marked as: (1), (2), (3) and (4). Find it out.
3. REMAIN : STAY LEAVE: ?
(1) Good-bye (2) Run (3) Farewell (4) Depart
4. POET : VERSE SCULPTOR : ?
(1) Artist (2) Chisel (3) Statue (4) Marble
Directions: In each question below you will find words, four of which are alike in some respect; they have something in common and belong to one category. Only one word is different from them; it does not belong to the category to which the other four belong. Which word is different from the rest?
5. (1) Foot ball (2) Cricket (3) Polo (4) Chess (5) Hockey
6. (1) Eye (2) Nose (3) Tongue (4) Finger (5) Liver
7. In a code where a numeral represents an alphabet the most likely code for the word RECESS is:
(1) 913155 (2) 723245 (3) 865277 (4) 233300 (5) 983499
8. If in a code a,b,c, means `try your best’, b,o,p,o means `try again & again’ x,y,a means `all the best’ – Then `your best again’ is represented by
(1) c a o (2) p o c (3) a c p (4) y c a (5) o c y
Directions: In the following question complete the given series
9. 48,24,72,36,108, . . . . . . . . . . .
(1) 110 (2)115 (3) 64 (4) 54 (5) 125
10. Of the following numbers which one is the greatest?
(1) (0.6 x 0.6)-12 (2) 0.004 x 100 (3) (-0.7)4 (4) 0.2 x 0.2
11. Which of the following numbers is least?
(1) (1/4)2 (2) 49 (3) 4-9 (4) 42
12. It costs Rs.4.25 for two adults and their child to attend the Circus. If the child’s ticket is half the price of adult’s ticket, what is the price of an adult’s ticket?
(1) Rs.0.75 (2)Rs. 1.70 (3) Rs.1.75 (4) Rs.1.44
13. If `a’ is less than 50 and ‘b’ is less than 25, it follows that:
(1) a=2b (2) `a` is greater than b (3) a+b is less than 75 (4) a-b =25 (5) None of these
b) Darken only in the CIRCLES provided. Please do not make any stray marks on the answer sheet. This will be penalised.
c) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet. This will be penalised. You can use the Test Booklet for this purpose.
d) Change / Cutting / Overwriting / Erasing of CIRCLES is NOT permitted.
2A. TECHNICAL TEST (for Engineer Trainees)
PART 1 – GENERAL
1. A series combination of Resistance and Capacitor is put across a Thyristor to protect it from:
(1) High Currents (2) High voltage (3) High rate of change of voltage (4) High rate of change of current
(5) Thermal run away
2. A Babbitt is:
(1) An eutectic of iron and iron phosphide
(2) A gadget of measuring volume
(3) Antimony bearing lead or tin alloy
(4) A measure of magnetic induction produced in a material
(5) None of these above
3. An Induction motor is:
(1) Self-starting with zero torque (2) Self-starting with very high torque
(3) Self-starting with smaller torque than the rated torque (4) None of the above
PART II – SPECIALISED FIELDS
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
1. The transformer capacity is 200 KVA, percentage impedance is 4% and tolerance impedance is 10%. The short circuit current in KA is:
(1) 0.39 (2) 8.21 (3) 8210 (4) 82100 (5) 0.821
2. A 20 KVA transformer was found to have 600 W Iron losses and 700 W Copper losses, when supplying full load at 0.8 power factor. The efficiency of the transformer on full load is:
(1) 92.5% (2) 91.2% (3) 100% (4) 98.2% (5) None of these
3. A water heater holds 20 litres of water. An electric immersion heater which will raise the temperature of the water from 10 degree C to 88 degree C in 55 minutes and efficiency of 85%. The rating in KW is
(1)7685000 (2)2330 (3)2.33 (4) 23.3 (5) None of these
ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING
1. A 10 Kw transistor is modulated to 80%. The average side band power will be:
(1) 1.8 KW (2) 8 KW (3) 3.2 KW (4) 4.6 KW (5) 4.26 KW
2. A resonant circuit has the resonance frequency 1 MHz and quality factor, Q, 100. Its 3-db band width is:
(1) 10 KHz (2) 5 KHz (3) 100 KHz (4) 20 KHz (5) None of these
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING
1. The inlet valve of a four stroke cycle I.C. engine remains open for nearly:
(1) 180o (2) 125o (3) 235o (4) 200o (5) 275o
2. Diesel cycle efficiency is maximum when the cut off is:
(1) Increased (2) Decreased (3) Maximum (4) Minimum (5) Zero
ANSWER KEY
1. APTITUDE TEST
1(4) 2. (1) 3.(4) 4.(3) 5.(4) 6.(5) 7.(1) 8. (1) 9.(4) 10.(1) 11.(3) 12.(2) 13.(3)
2A. TECHNICAL TEST – PART I – GENERAL
1(3) 2.(3) 3.(3)
PART II – SPECIALISED FIELDS
1. ELECTRICAL ENGG. 1. (2) 2. (1) 3.(3)
2. ELECTRONICS ENGG. 1. (3) 2. (1)
3. MECHANICAL ENGG. 1. (3) 2. (5)
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